And is that explanation true?<br><br>And, anyway, if that explanation was true, why would they support a law that allows the administration (A) the power to cut off internet without (B) the authorization of a judge anyway? How is possible to determine to cut off or not a internet connection without spying the communications? Have they thought about that?<br>
<br><br><div class="gmail_quote">On Fri, Nov 6, 2009 at 12:23 PM, Christian Hufgard <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:pp@christian-hufgard.de">pp@christian-hufgard.de</a>></span> wrote:<br><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="border-left: 1px solid rgb(204, 204, 204); margin: 0pt 0pt 0pt 0.8ex; padding-left: 1ex;">
<div class="im"><br>
Félix Robles wrote:<br>
> Well, I'm a simple member of the Spanish Pirate Party and we have already<br>
> stated that we are against on the Swedish Piratepartiet's stand on<br>
> theTelecoms Package. I'm not representing my whole party now (perhaps,<br>
> maybe, another person will be designated for that later) but *I personally<br>
> ask*:<br>
><br>
> Why? *Why did the swedish Piratepartiet agree* with the Telecoms Package<br>
> when it allows* to cut off internet without the previous authorization of<br>
> a judge*? Can any swedish member of the Piratpartiet explain it??<br>
<br>
</div>The official explanation is, that the EU has not the right to order the<br>
authorization of a judge...<br>
<font color="#888888"><br>
<br>
<br>
Christian<br>
</font><div><div></div><div class="h5"><br>
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